[personal profile] josharchive
I'm not trying to be difficult, obtuse, or to prove a point. I'm not being stupid, intentionally missing the point. I DON'T UNDERSTAND.

I carried half a day of vacation time over from 2007. I did not use ANY time from 2008 before 2008. I have 2 1/2 days of vacation time still available to me. The problem OBVIOUSLY IS NOT:

1- Using my time as soon as I get it


2- Using time from the next year before that calendar year.

The only conclusion I can draw, right now, if my attendance in January and February is REALLY putting me in danger of missing my raise again, is that I'm not allowed to use my sick or vacation time.

I honestly don't understand. The total time I've taken since the beginning of the year is 10 days. One of my coworkers just went on a 2-week vacation: 10 days. What's the difference?

I've done everything that's been asked of me. I've made sure I didn't use 2008 time in 2007. I've made sure I'm not taking time for bullshit "because I want to" reasons. If I have an accumulation still, I'm OBVIOUSLY not taking it as soon as I'm entitled to it. So what's the problem? Honestly? Explain to me, in plain black and white, how vacation time works. PLEASE. I don't like being railroaded like this.

... the funny thing is, my boss is probably just as frustrated with this situation as I am at this point...



November 2010

14 151617181920

Most Popular Tags

Style Credit

Expand Cut Tags

No cut tags
Page generated Sep. 23rd, 2017 01:56 am
Powered by Dreamwidth Studios